As it was the case earlier with the OT verses, these verses do not really address the issue of the pre-human existence of the son of God. They only say that the human son of God was born at a certain time, to Mary. These verses speak of the start of his human existence. That is something that those who accept the pre-human existence of the son of God believe. Therefore, the belief that this son of God existed before as a person, in a non-human state, cannot be contradicted by these objections.
Matthew 1:15-18
Eliud was the father of Eleazar, Eleazar the father of Matthan, and Matthan the father of Jacob. Jacob was the father of Joseph the husband of Mary, by whom Jesus was born, who is called the Messiah. [...] Now the birth (lit. origin) of Jesus Christ was as follows: when His mother Mary had been betrothed to Joseph, before they came together she was found to be with child by the Holy Spirit.
The NASB says "birth" but the word used here is a bit stronger than that. It is the word "genesis" which means beginning or origin (like the first book of the Bible). So the origin of this Messiah (Christ = Messiah) is in the womb of the virgin Mary. The inescapable consequence of his origin being in Mary is that he did not literally exist prior to this> (though of course Jesus existed notionally from the beginning–in the mind of God).
The context must be at all times kept in mind, that is, Jesus' existence as a man. Indeed, as a man, Jesus' ancestors are Abraham and David, as a man, Jesus' origin is the womb of Mary. But the origin of the living person of Jesus Christ is much much further back in time:
Micah 5:2 "But as for you, Bethlehem Ephrathah, Too little to be among the clans of Judah, From you One will go forth for Me to be ruler in Israel. His goings forth [origin] are from long ago,
from the days of eternity." (see Mt. 2:5-6)
According to HALOT 4920 (and Holladay 4382, and Harris' Theological Wordbook of the OT 893d) the Hebrew word מוֹצָאָה, translated by NASB as "goings forth", means "Origin". Messiah's origin, as a living person, is "from long ago, from the days of eternity", not from the 1st century.
Luke 1:31-35
"And behold, you will conceive in your womb and bear a son, and you shall name Him Jesus. "He will be great and will be called the Son of the Most High; [...] and for that reason the holy Child shall be called the Son of God.
Two points here: (1) Gabriel tells Mary that she will conceive, she will bear a son, and he will be great. The clear implication of this language is that Jesus did not already exist,
Keeping in mind that we are talking about the son of God that became flesh, the clear implication of this language is that the human son of God did not already exist, not that the living person of the human son of God did not already exist.
Furthermore, if he did exist prior to his birth then he was not great. Gabriel says that "he will be great," which means if he already existed he was not great, or else the angel should have said, "he is great" or "he will remain being great" or something to that effect
Sticking to the context again, the angel is talking about a human being. Mary "will conceive in her womb". Preexistentialists do not believe Jesus preexisted as a human being before being born to Mary. So as a human, he was going to be great. He could not have been great as a human, before being born as a human.
The precise reason given for why the child is called the "son of God" is [...] because of the miracle in the womb of Mary.
The conclusion is not mandatory. Why were the other sons of God called "sons of God", because they were born in the womb of women?
Genesis 6:2 the sons of God saw that the daughters of men were beautiful; and they took wives for themselves, whomever they chose.
Genesis 6:4 The Nephilim were on the earth in those days, and also afterward, when the sons of God came in to the daughters of men, and they bore children to them.
Job 1:6 Now there was a day when the sons of God came to present themselves before the LORD, and Satan also came among them.
Job 38:4-7 "Where were you when I laid the foundation of the earth? [...] When the morning stars sang together And all the sons of God shouted for joy?
Matthew 5:9 Blessed are the peacemakers, for they shall be called sons of God.
Galatians 3:26 For you are all sons of God through faith in Christ Jesus.
etc...
Acts 1:1
The first account I composed, Theophilus, about all that Jesus began to do and teach"
If Jesus began to "do and teach" in the book of Luke [...], then Jesus could not have done anything or taught anything before he was born!
The "first account" Luke refers to here is his gospel, where he presented what Jesus began to do and teach on earth, as a human son of God. It is extremely accurate indeed, to say that Luke captures the beginning of what Jesus does as a human being, on earth.
Hebrews 1:1-2
God, after He spoke long ago to the fathers in the prophets in many portions and in many ways, in these last days has spoken to us in His Son, whom He appointed heir of all things, through whom also He made the world.
If the Son were there in the Old Testament times, what was he doing? This text tells us that only in these last days has God spoken through His Son.
Again, careful reading reveals it is not the case. What the author is here focused on, is only the human channel used by God (as opposed to the non-human channel - angels meeting and speaking to Abraham, etc) to speak to these ancient fathers. What the Greek literally says is:
Πολυμερῶς [In various parts] καὶ [and] πολυτρόπως [in many ways] πάλαι [long ago] ὁ θεὸς [God] λαλήσας [spoke] τοῖς πατράσιν [to fathers] ἐν τοῖς προφήταις [in (through) the prophets].
In other words, "In various parts and in many ways, long ago, God spoke to our fathers through the prophets". The writer is concerned only with the human channel because he wants to get to what the human son of God, Jesus, did as well: spoken to us. Yes indeed, only in these last days God spoke to us through his human son, because only in these last days he was born as a human, on earth.
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